1 Timothy 1:10
This to me is one of the most interesting references to (maybe?) homosexuality in the Bible, but one you will rarely see brought up and I think you’ll quickly see why. Let’s take a look at several different versions here:
New International Version: “for adulterers and perverts, for slave traders and liars and perjurers--and for whatever else is contrary to the sound doctrine”
English Standard Version: “the sexually immoral, men who practice homosexuality, enslavers, liars, perjurers, and whatever else is contrary to sound doctrine,”
King James Version: “For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine”
Bible in Basic English: “For those who go after loose women, for those with unnatural desires, for those who take men prisoners, who make false statements and false oaths, and those who do any other things against the right teaching,”
Darby Bible Translation: “fornicators, sodomites, kidnappers, liars, perjurers; and if any other thing is opposed to sound teaching,”
The different translations here prove a point that I can’t emphasize enough about the Bible; it changes with intereprutation, sometimes alot. If you’ll notice in certain translations such as the NIV, the Bible in Basic English, and the Darby Bible Translations the term homosexual never even comes up. The word used here is translated as everything from a Sodomite, which as we discussed in the Genesis verses doesn’t necessarily refer to homosexuality in any way, to someone with unnatural desires (many homosexuals feel their desires are just as natural as a heterosexuals) to those who defile themselves with mankind which could mean a number of things. So what word was actually used in the ancient Greek text? It’s actually the same word we talked about that was used in 1 Cor., the term “arsenokeeteh” which as we discussed is incredibly vague.
Though some choose to assume it means homosexuality, many scholars argue that too many clearer terms abounded that would have been used in it’s place if that’s what it meant. It may have instead referred to a pagan sexual practice, child molesters, or simply infamously sinful people.
Clark’s commentary on the Bible defines it as:
Them that defile themselves with mankind - Αρσενοκοιταις· From αρσην, a male, and κοιτη, a bed; a word too bad to be explained.
This implies that it may have been some sort of ancient slang or used to describe a practice that we are no longer familiar with.
New International Version: “for adulterers and perverts, for slave traders and liars and perjurers--and for whatever else is contrary to the sound doctrine”
English Standard Version: “the sexually immoral, men who practice homosexuality, enslavers, liars, perjurers, and whatever else is contrary to sound doctrine,”
King James Version: “For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine”
Bible in Basic English: “For those who go after loose women, for those with unnatural desires, for those who take men prisoners, who make false statements and false oaths, and those who do any other things against the right teaching,”
Darby Bible Translation: “fornicators, sodomites, kidnappers, liars, perjurers; and if any other thing is opposed to sound teaching,”
The different translations here prove a point that I can’t emphasize enough about the Bible; it changes with intereprutation, sometimes alot. If you’ll notice in certain translations such as the NIV, the Bible in Basic English, and the Darby Bible Translations the term homosexual never even comes up. The word used here is translated as everything from a Sodomite, which as we discussed in the Genesis verses doesn’t necessarily refer to homosexuality in any way, to someone with unnatural desires (many homosexuals feel their desires are just as natural as a heterosexuals) to those who defile themselves with mankind which could mean a number of things. So what word was actually used in the ancient Greek text? It’s actually the same word we talked about that was used in 1 Cor., the term “arsenokeeteh” which as we discussed is incredibly vague.
Though some choose to assume it means homosexuality, many scholars argue that too many clearer terms abounded that would have been used in it’s place if that’s what it meant. It may have instead referred to a pagan sexual practice, child molesters, or simply infamously sinful people.
Clark’s commentary on the Bible defines it as:
Them that defile themselves with mankind - Αρσενοκοιταις· From αρσην, a male, and κοιτη, a bed; a word too bad to be explained.
This implies that it may have been some sort of ancient slang or used to describe a practice that we are no longer familiar with.